Psychology 101  McNamara Final Exam   140 points total    Name (print)__________________

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Multiple choice (110 points; 1 point each)  Choose the best answer for each of the following.  Mark your answers on the scantron sheet provided.  Use a #2 pencil only.

1. Dr. Cline believes that experience determines which specific aspects of language an individual will eventually master.  With respect to language development, Dr. Cline takes
a. 	a nativist approach.
b. 	an empiricist approach.
c. 	a functionalist approach.
d. 	a structuralist approach.

2. One of the main objections to the study of conscious experiences raised by psychologists who followed the behavioral perspective was that conscious experiences
a. 	are not directly observable, and therefore cannot be verified.
b. 	have no impact on current behavior.
c. 	cannot be understood separately from the context in which they occur.
d. 	will be different for each individual who is studied.

3. Naturalistic observation, case studies, and surveys are all examples of
a. 	experimental research.
b. 	descriptive research.
c. 	double-blind research designs.
d. 	single-blind research designs.

4. You read that there is statistically significant difference in the rate of depression among men and women.  This means that the difference is not likely to be due to
a. 	chance.
b. 	reactivity.
c. 	a confounded variable.
d. 	an expectancy effect.

5. A research assistant was talking to a friend outside the lab, "I just tested Humperdink, the guy in Art 105, and boy, he is screwed up!  He scored high on the paranoid scale."  This violates the ethical guideline of
a. 	human treatment.
b. 	informed consent.
c. 	confidentiality.
d. 	debriefing.

6. The primary advantage of experimental research over correlational research is that experiments
a. 	are easier to conduct than correlational studies.
b. 	use descriptive statistics rather than inferential statistics.
c. 	can determine cause-effect relationships.
d. 	involve more natural behavior than correlational studies.

7. A researcher who conducts a survey by asking volunteers to mail in a form that is printed in the local newspaper is likely to have a
a. 	representative sample.
b. 	random sample.
c. 	random population.
d. 	biased sample.

8. Of the following, the correlation coefficient that indicates the strongest relationship between the two variables being measured is
a. 	-0.89.
b. 	+0.65.
c. 	0.00.
d. 	+3.46.

9. The internal validity of an experiment can be increased
a. 	by holding the value of the dependent variable constant throughout the study.
b. 	by effectively controlling any potential confounding variables.
c. 	if the value of the independent variable is the same for both the experimental and the 	control groups.
d. 	if there no control group in the study.

10. A good operational definition of aggression might be
a. 	behavior intended to harm someone or something.
b. 	a violent response most often accompanying frustration or anger directed toward 	someone.
c. 	the number of times someone hits, kicks, or yells at a person or an object within a 1 hour 	period.
d. 	a personality characteristic in which the individual tends to solve problems with 	violence.

11. Cleo has a disorder of the autonomic nervous system. She is likely to have problems
a. 	regulating heart rate, digestion, or other internal functions.
b. 	controlling movements, such as walking.
c. 	with one or more sensory systems, such as vision.
d. 	thinking or problem solving.

12. The trait of red hair is recessive. If you have red hair, you can conclude that you must have
a. 	no red hair genes.
b. 	two red hair genes.
c. 	only one red hair gene.
d. 	at least one (maybe two, but not necessarily) red hair genes.

13. Vizzini had a stroke and now has difficulty seeing. His stroke probably damaged the 
a. 	limbic system.
b. 	reticular activating system.
c. 	occipital lobe.
d. 	frontal lobe.

14. Dr. Cornelius has just discovered a new drug named ZA1 that is an agonist for acetylcholine.  It is likely that this new drug will produce side effects such as
a. 	general stimulation within the body, and an increase in heart rate.
b. 	paralysis.
c. 	hallucinations.
d. 	disrupted sleep patterns.

15. A neuron's electrical potential becomes less negative in response to
a. 	an excitatory message.
b. 	an inhibitory message.
c. 	hyperpolarization.
d. 	the firing of the axon.

16. Jenn was a monkey who was extremely aggressive and often flew into uncontrollable rages.  Brain researchers lesioned portions of Jenn's forebrain and she became extremely passive and docile.  These researchers most likely lesioned portions of Jenn's
a. 	occipital lobe.
b. 	amygdala.
c. 	hippocampus.
d. 	substantia nigra.

17. Imagine that a picture of a cat was briefly flashed in the right visual field of an individual with a severed corpus callosum.  At the same time a picture of an apple is briefly flashed in left visual field.  Based on Roger Sperry's work with split brain patients, you could predict that this individual would say
a. 	"I saw an apple.
b. 	"I saw a cat."
c. 	"I'm not sure what I saw, it looked like an apple with ears."
d. 	"I didn't see anything."

18. Vanessa jerked her foot out of the tub of scalding water before she actually sensed any pain because the withdrawal reflex
a. 	does not involve the central nervous system.
b. 	is activated by the autonomic nervous system.
c. 	is initiated in the sensory cortex, which has no pain receptors.
d. 	is controlled by interneurons in her spinal cord.

19. Imagine that the human eye only had cones, and no rods.  In this situation a person would have
a. 	poor vision in bright illumination.
b. 	poor peripheral vision.
c. 	no color vision.
d. 	poor visual acuity.

20. Awareness of where your arms and legs are located is the product of the
a. 	olfactory sense.
b. 	kinesthetic sense.
c. 	vestibular sense.
d. 	gustatory sense.

21. In the signal detection technique a "hit" is recorded when the observer reports
a. 	feeling a touch when he or she was not touched.
b. 	feeling a touch when he or she was touched.
c. 	feeling no touch when he or she was touched.
d. 	feeling no touch when he or she was not touched.

22. Our visual acuity will be best when a ganglion cell
a. 	has a small receptive field.
b. 	has a large receptive field.
c. 	transmits its neural signal directly to the visual cortex.
d. 	transmits its neural signal to the cerebellum, instead of the visual cortex.

23. If people did not have size constancy, objects would appear to
a. 	shrink as they moved closer to us.
b. 	be the same size, no matter how far away they were.
c. 	grow in size as they moved closer to us.
d. 	change colors as they moved away from us.

24. After a small section of his basilar membrane was damaged, Dimitri experienced a noticeable loss of hearing for high-pitched sounds only.  Dimitri's hearing loss is best explained using the
a. 	frequency principle of hearing.
b. 	Young-Helmholtz theory of hearing.
c. 	place theory of hearing.
d. 	opponent-process theory of hearing.

25. You dreamed about riding a train into a tunnel.  According to the activation-synthesis view, your dream is
a. 	really about your need to fulfill an unacceptable sexual desire.
b. 	an attempt by your mind to solve a problem that arose during the last few days.
c. 	an indication of a serious psychological disorder that should be treated.
d. 	your brain's interpretation of the random neural activity generated during sleep.

26. Sally has taken a drug that is causing her to hear colors and see music.  The drug that Sally has most likely taken is
a. 	heroin.
b. 	a barbiturate.
c. 	LSD.
d. 	alcohol.

27. The Stroop effect demonstrates that
a. 	automatic processes do not interfere with controlled processes
b. 	reading words (for most adults) is a controlled process
c. 	reading words (for most adults) is an automatic process
d. 	perceiving color is a controlled process

28. People told, prior to hypnosis, that hypnosis causes rigidity of the arms are likely to show this symptom while hypnotized, even if the hypnotist never suggests rigidity.  This supports the view that hypnosis is
a. 	a dissociation of consciousness.
b. 	due to an increase in alpha wave activity.
c. 	a result of an acetylcholine (ACh) imbalance.
d. 	a kind of social role playing.

29. Alcohol, barbiturates and tranquilizers are all examples of
a. 	stimulants.
b. 	narcotics.
c. 	depressants.
d. 	hallucinogens.

30. Westley and Buttercup ate at a new restaurant last night.  The interior of the restaurant had a number of flashing, pink neon flamingos on display and the sound system played nothing but flamingo calls.  Both Westley and Buttercup ordered the flamingo surprise, which tasted like nothing they had ever eaten before.  Four hours later they both became very ill.  Based on the research conducted by Garcia and Koelling you might predict that in the future Westley and Buttercup would both try to avoid
a. 	the color pink.
b. 	the sound of flamingo calls.
c. 	eating foods that taste like the flamingo surprise.
d. 	houses that have pink flamingos on the lawn

31. Leon has learned to use an over-the-counter medication 30 minutes before he eats a meal as a way to prevent heartburn and indigestion.  This is an example of
a. 	avoidance conditioning.
b. 	escape conditioning.
c. 	observational conditioning.
d. 	classical conditioning.

32. The birds who were eating at the bird feeder initially flew away when the shadow of Charlie's kite passed over the feeder.  However, after Charlie had been flying the kite for 15 minutes the birds had all returned and didn't stop feeding when the kite passed overhead.  This illustrates the process known as
a. 	sensitization.
b. 	habituation.
c. 	second-order conditioning.
d. 	negative reinforcement.

33. You are watching a pigeon pecking a key for food reinforcement.  The pigeon pecks at a very high, steady rate, but it also takes short breaks from pecking each time food is delivered.  In this example the reinforcement schedule that is in place is most likely
a. 	a variable-ratio schedule of reinforcement.
b. 	a fixed-interval schedule of reinforcement.
c. 	a variable-interval schedule of reinforcement.
d. 	a fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement.

34. Eugene was autistic and wouldn't speak to anyone.  A therapist who was working with Eugene initially gave him a cookie every time he made any sound at all.  This switched to only giving cookies when Eugene said a complete word, and eventually only for complete sentences.  In this example the therapist developed Eugene's speech skills using
a. 	negative reinforcement.
b. 	shaping.
c. 	classical conditioning.
d. 	modeling.

35. The processes that determine and control the acquisition of memories are called
a. 	storage.
b. 	retrieval.
c. 	encoding.
d. 	chunking.

36. The Arabic names for digits (1 through 10) are longer than the English names, and therefore take longer to say aloud.  Consequently, compared to English speakers, people who speak Arabic remember
a. 	more digits over the short-term.
b. 	fewer digits over the short-term.
c. 	the same number of digits, but for shorter periods of time.
d. 	more of the information in sensory memory.

37. Buttercup is trying to memorize her lines for a play.  She stands in different locations in her apartment and reads each line out loud.  Later, when she is on stage she visualizes a walk through her apartment and is able to successfully recall all her lines.  Buttercup's memory strategy best illustrates the mnemonic device known as
a. 	the method of loci.
b. 	the peg-word system.
c. 	paired associate learning.
d. 	chunking.

38. When previously established memories interfere with the formation of new memories, the process involved is
a. 	retroactive interference.
b. 	repression.
c. 	retrograde amnesia.
d. 	proactive interference.

39. Preston had brain surgery to remove a small tumor from his temporal lobe.  After the surgery Preston appeared to be fine, and he was able to talk about events from his childhood, and events just prior to the surgery.  However, he can't remember anything that has happened since the surgery, and he doesn't seem to be able to form any new memories.  Preston's memory difficulties are consistent with
a. 	anterograde amnesia.
b. 	retrograde amnesia.
c. 	proactive amnesia.
d. 	cryptomnesia.

40. When we form connections between new information and information already in memory, we are using
a. 	transfer-appropriate processing.
b. 	iconic encoding.
c. 	bilateral processing.
d. 	elaboration.

41. Sperling's experiment's on sensory memory showed that
a. 	visual sensory memory lasts about 30 seconds
b. 	visual sensory memory is semantically organized
c. 	visual sensory memory contains perceptually processed information
d. 	visual sensory memory has a very large capacity 

42. The sentence "Colorless green ideas sleep furiously" is an example of a sentence in English that has
a. 	correct phonology but incorrect morphology.
b. 	correct semantics but incorrect syntax.
c. 	correct pragmatics but incorrect phonology.
d. 	correct syntax but incorrect semantics.

43. If categories are formed using prototypes
a. 	each new object must possess all the necessary features to be considered acceptable 	members of a category.
b. 	category membership is determined by the particular set of critical features an object 	possesses.
c. 	each new object is compared to the existing members of the category.
d. 	each new object is compared to the best or most representative member of the category.

44. Jarrod wants to use his roommate's computer to work on his term paper.  However, the roommate has password protection on his screen saver.  Rather than starting at "a" and systematically testing every possible word in the English language, Jarrod makes some educated guesses, based on words he thinks are especially meaningful to his roommate.  In this case, Jarrod is using
a. 	an algorithm to get past the password protection.
b. 	a homily to get past the password protection.
c. 	a heuristic to get past the password protection.
d. 	an axiom to get past the password protection.

45. Gick & Holyoak found that subjects were largely unable to solve Duncker's radiation problem using the solution of an analagous problem they had seen earlier (unless they were made aware of the similarity).  This finding illustrates the phenomenon of
a. 	inert knowledge
b. 	sporadic knowledge
c. 	encoding specificity
d. 	representativeness

46. von Frisch's experiment showed that the communication system of honeybees does not have the property of being
a. 	communicative
b. 	symbolic
c. 	hierarchical
d. 	dynamic 

47. Dolphins' ability to respond correctly to phrases such as "WATER TOSS" illustrates their capacity for
a. 	classical conditioning
b. 	pragmatics
c. 	observational learning
d. 	creativity

48. According to Robert Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence, someone who is efficient at processing information and who performs well on conventional tests designed to measure reasoning and logical-mathematical abilities, should score high in
a. 	creative intelligence.
b. 	practical intelligence.
c. 	all three areas of intelligence.
d. 	analytic intelligence.

49. Standardized tests are tests that
a. 	produce similar scores from one administration to the next.
b. 	measure what they are designed to measure.
c. 	have testing, scoring and interpretation procedures that do not vary across different 	administrations of the test.
d. 	sample broadly across the domain of interest.

50. In terms of intelligence, "g" refers to
a. 	an individual factor that is unique to a particular type of test.
b. 	acquired knowledge and abilities.
c. 	an underlying intelligence factor that applies to all types of test performance.
d. 	the ability to understand spatial relationships and think in three dimensions.

51. Which of the following is a component of each of the definitions of intelligence presented in class?
a. 	the ability to act purposively
b. 	the ability to categorize by function
c. 	the ability to speak fluently
d. 	the ability to adapt to the environment 

52. The sort of rationale that would make the most sense to a person at the conventional level of moral reasoning would be: "Don't hit Alex, because
a. 	it's against the rules."
b. 	he'll probably hit you back."
c. 	you'll have to stay after school."
d. 	Alex is my friend."

53. The social learning theory of gender role development states that gender roles develop because
a. 	children have few models for gender-appropriate behavior.
b. 	children quickly determine that their genitals are different from some others.
c. 	children are innately programmed to behave in stereotypically "masculine" or 	"feminine" ways.
d. 	children are rewarded for certain "masculine" or "feminine" behavior.

54. Harry Harlow completed a number of studies in which baby rhesus monkeys were raised with two artificial "mothers."  One of the "mothers" was made of wire and delivered food, the other was made of cloth and provided no food.  Harlow found that when the infant monkeys were startled or frightened,
a. 	they preferred the wire surrogate that provided food.
b. 	they avoided both surrogates and huddled in a corner.
c. 	they preferred the cloth surrogate that did not provide food.
d. 	they showed no clear preference, and ran to whichever surrogate was closer.

55. Mandy seems unconcerned when strangers appear or when her mother leaves, and she shows little interest when her mother returns.  She would most likely be classified as
a. 	having a secure attachment.
b. 	having an antagonistic attachment.
c. 	having a resistant attachment.
d. 	having an avoidant attachment.

56. Juanita is 16 years old and she wants to study chemical engineering when she gets to college.  Her parents think Juanita is being too ambitious and they are pressuring her to complete a business degree instead.  Meanwhile, her boyfriend is talking about marriage and he doesn't want her to even start college.  Based on Erikson's theory, it is likely that Juanita will
a. 	develop a sense of despair.
b. 	develop feelings of inferiority.
c. 	show evidence of role confusion.
d. 	develop a strong sense of identity.

57. In the stage theory of the dying process proposed by Elisabeth KŸbler-Ross, an individual who was in the bargaining stage would be most likely to say
a. 	"There must be some terrible mistake."
b. 	"Why is this happening to me?"
c. 	"What can I do to stop this from happening?"
d. 	"I'm ready to die."

58. Mrs. Weston asks Jon if he wants his sandwich in one piece, or cut into two pieces.  Jon asks her to keep it in one piece, because he isn't hungry enough to eat two pieces.  Jon's answer suggests that he
a. 	cannot assimilate changes in his sandwich.
b. 	cannot accommodate changes in his sandwich.
c. 	does not yet understand conservation.
d. 	has mastered the concept of conservation.

59. Imagine that an infant hears the sound "ba" over and over, until the infant loses interest and stops listening.  If the sound now changes to "pa", but the infant still shows no interest, researchers may infer that the infant
a. 	is able to perceive the difference between the two sounds.
b. 	cannot perceive the difference between the two sounds.
c. 	prefers sounds that start with "b" to sounds that start with "p.
d. 	prefers sounds that start with "p" to sounds that start with "b.

60. Studies of the effect of child care on interpersonal development have generally found that
a. 	child care leads to insecure attachment
b. 	child care provide crucial interaction with other children
c. 	effects on development are largely determined by the quality of care
d. 	child care facilitates interpersonal development in girls more than in boys

61. One criticism of Erikson's theory of psychosocial development is that
a. 	it describes development as a series of discrete stages
b. 	few people can successfully resolve all of the stages
c. 	it fails to acknowledge that development is a lifelong process
d. 	it deemphasizes interpersonal interaction

62. One example of intrinsic motivation would be reading a newly released novel
a. 	as part of a required classroom assignment.
b. 	because you are a professional book reviewer who must write a paid review.
c. 	for your own enjoyment and pleasure.
d. 	to help you get to the next level in a class reading contest.

63. The order of human needs, from the most basic to the least basic needs, in Maslow's hierarchy of needs is
a. 	physiological, love & belongingness, safety, self-actualization, esteem.
b. 	physiological, safety, love & belongingness, esteem, self-actualization.
c. 	physiological, safety, esteem, love & belongingness, self-actualization.
d. 	physiological, self-actualization, safety, love & belongingness, esteem.

64. People tend to show little variation in weight from year to year.  This constant weight is referred to as the individual's
a. 	homeostatic weight.
b. 	set point.
c. 	ventromedial weight.
d. 	optimal weight.

65. Testosterone and estrogen appear to affect sexual activity and desire
a. 	more in humans than in other animals.
b. 	equally in both humans and animals.
c. 	more in males than in females.
d. 	more in animals than in humans.

66. Based on cross-cultural research in which people from different cultural backgrounds are shown pictures of facial expressions and asked to identify the emotion that is being expressed, researchers have now concluded that
a. 	people throughout the world use similar facial expressions to express emotions.
b. 	there are 10 basic emotions that humans can experiences.
c. 	emotional expressions are learned through observation.
d. 	people from different cultures use unique facial expressions when expressing emotions.

67. The two-factor theory of emotion states that
a. 	people experience emotions subjectively and this leads to physiological reactions.
b. 	physiological reactions precede and drive the subjective experience of emotions.
c. 	physiological reactions and subjective experiences occur together, but they are 	independent of each other.
d. 	the cognitive interpretation or appraisal of physiological reactions drives the subjective 	experience of emotion.

68. Personality tests that are based on the assumption that people's interpretations of ambiguous stimuli will reveal elements of their 
personality are called
a. 	projective tests.
b. 	self-report tests.
c. 	objective tests.
d. 	personality inventories.

69. According to Freud's view of personality development, when a person continues to act in ways that are appropriate for a particular stage, even after they have physically matured beyond that stage, the person has become
a. 	repressed.
b. 	fixated.
c. 	sublimated.
d. 	activated.

70. According to Carl Rogers, incongruence will result when
a. 	the id and the superego are in conflict over how basic needs should be fulfilled.
b. 	other people place conditions of worth on an individual's actions or behaviors.
c. 	an individual fails to receive positive regard from family and friends.
d. 	there is a discrepancy between an individual's self-concept and his or her ideal self.

71. Individuals who attend closely to the situation at hand, and change their behavior to best fit their needs
a. 	are low in self-monitoring.
b. 	have high self-efficacy.
c. 	have an external locus of control.
d. 	are high in self-monitoring.

72. Critics of self-report inventories, such as the MMPI, have complained that
a. 	the scoring procedures are much too subjective.
b. 	it is easy for subjects to bias their answers to make themselves look good.
c. 	two people scoring the same test often give different interpretations.
d. 	they allow too much freedom in the person's response.

73. A person who was sympathetic, warm, trusting, and cooperative would probably score at the high end of the
a. 	extroversion dimension of the Big Five model of personality.
b. 	neuroticism dimension of the Big Five model of personality.
c. 	openness dimension of the Big Five model of personality.
d. 	agreeableness dimension of the Big Five model of personality.

74. A self-fulfilling prophecy occurs when an individual
a. 	takes credit for his or her success, but refuses to accept responsibility for his or her 	failure.
b. 	overestimates the impact of external, situational factors on another person's behavior.
c. 	underestimates the impact of external, situational factors on another person's behavior.
d. 	is induced to act in ways that are consistent with expectations held by others.

75. When a behavior is high in consistency, distinctiveness and consensus, people tend to
a. 	make internal attributions.
b. 	make the fundamental attribution error.
c. 	make external attributions.
d. 	show the self-serving bias.

76. Which of the following did Stanley Milgram discover in his studies of obedience?
a. 	women were as obedient as men
b. 	obedience was restricted to a "pathological fringe"
c. 	less than one-third of the subjects were fully obedient
d. 	the level of obedience decreased after World War II

77. Anabel had planned to buy a foreign car when one of her friends mentions that Tom Cruise drives a domestic car.  Based on the assumption that Tom Cruise wouldn't buy anything that wasn't top quality, Anabel decides to buy the domestic car instead.  In this instance, she reached her decision using the
a. 	central route to persuasion.
b. 	cognitive dissonance model.
c. 	peripheral route to persuasion.
d. 	self-serving route to persuasion.

78. Devin, Jeremiah, Meg, and Casey all watched as the building across the street burned to the ground.  They kept waiting for the fire trucks to show up, even though none of them had called 911.  In this case, the fact that none of the four friends phoned to report the fire illustrates the phenomenon of
a. 	social loafing.
b. 	social interference.
c. 	normative social influence.
d. 	the bystander effect.

79. Cyrah notices that every time she is in the book store she spends more time checking out new books in the biography section than looking at the newest novels.  Consequently, Cyrah decides she must really like reading biographies.  Cyrah's attitude can best be explained using
a. 	cognitive dissonance theory.
b. 	self-perception theory.
c. 	observational learning theory.
d. 	fundamental attribution theory.

80. Normative social influence occurs when
a. 	individuals conform to be correct or accurate in their responses.
b. 	a group's dominant point of view becomes stronger or more extreme.
c. 	individuals conform to gain approval, or avoid rejection, in social settings.
d. 	people respond to the orders of an authority figure.

81. The management at NASA had clear evidence that freezing launch temperatures might pose a problem for the launch of the Challenger, but the managers chose to ignore that evidence, and proceeded with the launch.  The process that would best explain what happened in this case is
a. 	group polarization.
b. 	groupthink.
c. 	informational social influence.
d. 	social inhibition.

82. Count Rugen has an unfavorable attitude toward his landlord.  He spends every Saturday night poring over the classified ads trying to find a different apartment to rent.  This action forms part of
a. 	the cognitive component of Count Rugen's attitude toward his landlord.
b. 	the affective component of Count Rugen's attitude toward his landlord.
c. 	the behavioral component of Count Rugen's attitude toward his landlord.
d. 	the physiological component of Count Rugen's attitude toward his landlord.

83. Lorin believes that all computer majors are "nerds" who only think about computers.  He believes they lack social skills, and that they have a weird sense of humor.  In this case, Lorin's beliefs about the traits and behaviors of computer majors are one example of
a. 	a self-fulfilling prophecy.
b. 	a stereotype.
c. 	the fundamental attribution error.
d. 	social interference.

84. Dan's first impression of his new roommate will be most strongly influenced by his roommate's
a. 	name.
b. 	apparent intelligence.
c. 	first words.
d. 	physical appearance.

85. In one research study college students performed extremely boring tasks.  When a one-hour session had been completed the students were asked to tell the next participant that the experiment was extremely interesting and enjoyable.  Half the students were offered a $1 incentive for telling the next student about the experiment, and half were paid $20.  In this study, Festinger and Carlsmith found that
a. 	the more subjects were paid to act in a manner that was inconsistent with their true 	feelings, the more likely their attitudes were to change.
b. 	any amount of incentive was sufficient to change attitudes when participants had acted 	in a manner that was inconsistent with their true feelings.
c. 	the more subjects were paid to act in a manner that was inconsistent with their true 	feelings, the less likely their attitudes were to change.
d. 	no matter how much the amount of incentive was, participants did not change their 	attitudes about the task.

86. Wilma incessantly worries that she forgot to set the parking brake on her car.  The only way for her to relieve her anxiety is to go out to the car and check the parking brake, which she does nearly 50 times a day.  In this case, it is likely that Wilma would be classified as having
a. 	obsessive-compulsive disorder.
b. 	generalized anxiety disorder.
c. 	panic disorder.
d. 	schizophrenia.

87. The DSM-IV is a multiaxial classification system that is used to diagnose psychological disorders.  Any abnormal behaviors that may be present are classified using
a. 	Axis I and Axis II.
b. 	Axis III.
c. 	Axis IV and Axis V.
d. 	Axis X.

88. The main difference between specific phobic disorder and generalized anxiety disorder is
a. 	specific phobic disorder tends to be more severe and more long-lasting.
b. 	specific phobic disorder tends to be less severe and have a shorter duration.
c. 	specific phobic disorder results from classical conditioning, and generalized anxiety 	disorder results from observational learning.
d. 	in specific phobic disorder there is a specific trigger for anxiety, and in generalized 	anxiety disorder there is no specific trigger.

89. Psychological disorders characterized by the separation of conscious awareness from previous thoughts or memories are classified as
a. 	anxiety disorders.
b. 	dissociative disorders.
c. 	somatoform disorders.
d. 	personality disorders.

90. The most common of all psychological disorders are
a. 	dissociative personality disorders.
b. 	schizophrenic disorders.
c. 	conversion disorders.
d. 	depressive disorders.

91. Wendy has difficulty dealing with her boss.  Sometimes he appears to be in the depths of depression, other times he appears to be hyperactive and euphoric.  Wendy never knows from one week to the next what to expect.  When he is "down" he is not interested in anything that is going on with the company.  And, when he is "up" he suggests ideas that are virtually impossible, expecting Wendy to carry them through.  In this case, it is likely that Wendy's boss would be classified as having
a. 	bipolar disorder.
b. 	schizophrenia.
c. 	dissociative personality disorder.
d. 	antisocial personality disorder.

92. Schizophrenic disorders are a class of disorders characterized by
a. 	excessive apprehension that impairs normal functioning.
b. 	the separation of conscious awareness from previous thoughts or memories.
c. 	fundamental disturbances in thought processes, emotion, or behavior.
d. 	alternating among two or more distinct identities or personality states.

93. Ulani is a secretary at a local car dealer, but she is convinced that her phone lines are tapped, and that all the rooms in her house are "bugged" so that government spies can learn her secret thoughts.  On her way home she never drives the same route twice, to prevent government agents from following her.  In this case, it appears that Ulani is experiencing
a. 	delusions of grandeur.
b. 	hallucinations.
c. 	delusions of persecution.
d. 	advanced catatonia.

94. Psychological disorders characterized by chronic patterns of behavior that lead to significant impairments in social functioning are classified as
a. 	personality disorders.
b. 	anxiety disorders.
c. 	schizophrenic disorders.
d. 	dissociative disorders.

95. We know that schizophrenia is not entirely due to genetic factors because
a. 	children separated from their schizophrenic parents are more likely to have 	schizophrenia than their adoptive siblings are.
b. 	children separated from their schizophrenic parents are no more likely to have 	schizophrenia than their adoptive siblings are.
c. 	the concordance rate for identical twins is about 50%.
d. 	the concordance rate for fraternal twins is about 15%.

96. Fezzik failed his last geology test.  As he discusses the test with you, he says:  "It's totally my fault.  I was born stupid.  I'll probably fail all my courses."  In this case Fezzik has made
a. 	an external, stable, global attribution for his test performance.
b. 	an internal, stable, global attribution for his test performance.
c. 	an internal, unstable, specific attribution for his test performance.
d. 	an internal, stable, specific attribution for his test performance.

97. Kelsey's father is afraid of flying.  Although Kelsey has never actually been on an airplane himself, he shows the same fear.  In this case, the fear that Kelsey shows
a. 	most likely developed through the process of classical conditioning.
b. 	most likely developed through the process of modeling.
c. 	most likely developed through the process of instrumental conditioning.
d. 	most likely results from a genetic predisposition to fear flying.

98. If a behavior is classified as abnormal because it occurs infrequently, abnormality is being defined by
a. 	cultural deviance.
b. 	dysfunction.
c. 	statistical deviance.
d. 	emotional distress.

99. In psychoanalysis, insight is achieved when
a. 	the client begins to experience resistance and transference.
b. 	the therapist is able to explain the latent content of the client's dreams.
c. 	the client's unconscious conflicts are brought into conscious awareness.
d. 	the therapist is able to explain the manifest content of the client's dreams.

100. Cognitive therapies are based on the assumption that psychological disorders primarily result from
a. 	unconscious impulses and memories.
b. 	discrepancies between an individual's self-concept and his or her everyday experiences.
c. 	irrational beliefs and negative thoughts.
d. 	unwanted or maladaptive behaviors.

101. The form of psychotherapy that gives a client the least direction, and simply provides acceptance and encouragement while the client works through his or her own problems is
a. 	rational-emotive therapy.
b. 	existential therapy.
c. 	client-centered therapy.
d. 	Gestalt therapy.

102. Inigo is an alcoholic who has been unable to control his drinking.  He has lost his job, and his wife has divorced him.  Finally, he entered therapy in an attempt to control his desire to drink.  The behavioral therapist gave Inigo a drug called Antabuse, and told him that it would make him extremely nauseous if he drank any alcohol. Inigo has only had two drinks since he entered therapy, and both times he became sick to his stomach.  Now he finds that the thought of drinking no longer has the pleasant associations that it once did.  In this case, the therapist used
a. 	systematic desensitization to help Inigo overcome his desire for alcohol.
b. 	a token economy to help Inigo overcome his desire for alcohol.
c. 	aversion therapy to help Inigo overcome his desire for alcohol.
d. 	negative reinforcement to help Inigo overcome his desire for alcohol.

103. Tyne has a psychological disorder and her doctor has prescribed lithium carbonate to help reduce the severity of Tyne's symptoms.  In this case, Tyne most likely has
a. 	schizophrenia.
b. 	depression.
c. 	an anxiety disorder.
d. 	bipolar disorder.

104. A number of studies have found there is
a. 	a strong negative correlation between the amount of empathy the therapist establishes, 	and the overall effectiveness of treatment.
b. 	a strong positive correlation between the amount of empathy the therapist establishes, 	and the overall effectiveness of treatment.
c. 	a weak positive correlation between the amount of empathy the therapist establishes, 	and the overall effectiveness of treatment.
d. 	no correlation between the amount of empathy the therapist establishes, and the overall 	effectiveness of treatment.

105. The stress that a person actually experiences in different situations is critically influenced by
a. 	the number of life change units the event involves.
b. 	the person's physical health when the stressor is present.
c. 	the overall magnitude of the stressful event.
d. 	the cognitive appraisal that the person makes.

106. Efforts to manage conditions of threat or demand that tax one's resources are called
a. 	general activation.
b. 	resistance.
c. 	placating.
d. 	coping.

107. A number of students often develop colds and other minor illnesses during final exam week.  Based on the research into the physical responses to stress, this may happen because the stress of final exams
a. 	raises the level of lymphocytes in the students' blood.
b. 	lowers the level of cortisol in the students' blood.
c. 	raises the level of cholesterol in the students' blood.
d. 	lowers the level of lymphocytes in the students' blood.

108. Hal and Marvin are a bomb disposal team.  Hal's role is simply to hand Marvin tools.  Marvin, who is well trained, is in control of the dangerous procedures.  Based on stress research, we should expect
a. 	Marvin will be more likely to develop stress-related disorders than Hal.
b. 	Hal will be more likely to develop stress-related disorders than Marvin.
c. 	Marvin and Hal have an equal, very low, likelihood of developing stress-related 	disorders.
d. 	Marvin and Hal have an equal, very high, likelihood of developing stress-related 	disorders.

109. According to Moos's Crisis Theory, the ability to cope with chronic health problems depends on all of the following EXCEPT:
a. 	emotional maturity
b. 	gender
c. 	severity of illness
d. 	finances 

110. To increase longevity, you should do all of the following EXCEPT:
a. 	eat breakfast almost every day
b. 	drink alcohol in moderation or not at all
c. 	smoke cigarettes
d. 	sleep 7-8 hours a day

Completion (30 points; 1 point each blank)  Complete each of the following statements with the appropriate answer(s).  Write your answers in the spaces provided.

111. Signal detection theory claims that detection threshold is determined by both ________________________________ and ________________________________.

112. If a person's ________________________________ visual system within the thalamus were not functioning correctly, you might expect that they would have trouble seeing fine detail and color.

113. Krystal is visiting her friend Hillary.  Hillary's mom gives each of the children a can of juice and a glass.  Krystal's glass is a short, fat glass, and when she pours her juice into the glass she is convinced that Hillary has more juice.  According to Piaget, the latest stage of cognitive development that Krystal could be in is the _______________________________ stage.

114. Removal of a negative stimulus resulting in the increased likelihood of repeating a response is called _______________________________.

115. The extent to which a test measures what it is intended to measure is called _______________________________.

116. The claim that speakers of different languages think in different ways is called the  _______________________________ hypothesis.

117. Bandura's Bobo doll experiment illustrates the process of _______________________________ learning.

118. Pain with a known physical cause is called _______________________________ pain.

119. The neurotransmitter that antipsychotic drugs most commonly interact with is _______________________________.

120. Shane was convicted of five separate counts of murder.  He showed no remorse for his actions and threatened to hunt down and kill the witnesses who had testified against him.  Shane displays symptoms associated with _______________________________ personality disorder.

121. _______________________________ is a behavioral therapy that uses counterconditioning and extinction to reduce the fear and anxiety associated with a particular object or event.

122. The three basic mental structures in Freud's theory of personality are the _______________________________, the _______________________________, and the _______________________________.

123. _______________________________ is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating and purging.

124. The _______________________________ theory of prejudice states that everyone has prejudices, but that they differ in the extent to which they tolerate prejudice in themselves.

125. Festinger defined _______________________________ as a state of tension produced by inconsistency between attitude and action.

126.  The strange situation test is used to study _______________________________ in infants.

127.  The _______________________________ route to persuasion produces the most stable changes in attitudes.

128. When people overestimate the influence of internal, personal factors and underestimate the role of external, situational factors in explaining another person's behavior, they make the _______________________________ error.

129.  List two factors that have been found to affect conformity. _______________________________ and _______________________________.

130.  List two of the properties of human language discussed in class. _______________________________ and _______________________________.

131. Biological activities that rise and fall in accordance with a 25-hour cycle are called _______________________________ rhythms.

132. _______________________________ memory is spatially organized.

133. The reaction range view of intellectual development suggests that _______________________________ sets certain limits on intelligence and _______________________________ determines where an individual falls within those limits.

134.  The gambler's fallacy illustrates the _______________________________  heuristic.